So if Prosper is offering to repurchase all loans made by Florida lenders during a window of time in which its registration "inadvertently" lapsed, why isn't Prosper making the same offer to EVERY lender of its P 1.0 loans, considering that Prosper intentionally failed to register those with the SEC at all? I'll gladly trade my -2% ROI for a 6% ROI paid by Prosper.
Of course, doing so would bankrupt Prosper, but that isn't our problem.
ETA: If I were a Florida lender, I would tender all of my defaulted, delinquent, and otherwise problematic loans from the Purchase Period back to Prosper, even if I wanted to keep my performing loans. Of course, TINLA.