it is clear that Prosper says it doesn't require that. Indeed, Prosper's own words appear to say that it will repurchase ID-theft loans even if the perpetrator is unknown (since it will "work with law enforcement authorities to track [them] down.") So just what kind of proof is a victim of ID-theft supposed to provide Propser besides a sworn affidavit?
Do you really think there is any evidence solid enough to enforce an ID Theft claim against a spouse? Especially if they already had mingled financial affairs? Somehow I don't think so.
Yes I do. If Prosper wants to require him to file a police report, that is fine with me (and apparently with him). Filing a false police report is a crime that is not at all infrequently prosecuted. That provides sufficient deterrence to false claims, especially where, as here, the so-called "borrower" has stated in a court pleading that Prosper never contacted him before funding the loan. That would be a pretty risky claim for him to make if not true, because for all he knows, Prosper could have a recording of the call. But apparently Prosper has no such recording, or other evidence, as it would have mentioned it if it did. Lastly, Prosper, could have avoided this situation entirely by requiring a notarized signature before releasing loan proceeds. It chose not to (and why not -- lenders, not Prosper, bear the costs of Prosper's shoddy verification). Put together, I think it is a no-brainer that Prosper is obligated to repurchase this loan under its so-called "guarantee."